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https://math.answers.com/algebra/Can_an_invertible_function_have_more_than_one_x-intercept

Can an invertible function have more than one x-intercept? - Answers

No. If the function has more than one x-intercept then there are more than one values of x for which y = 0. This means that, for the inverse function, y = 0 should be mapped onto more than one x values. That is, the inverse function would be many-to-one. But a function cannot be many-to-one. So the "inverse" is not a function. And tat means the original function is not invertible.



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Can an invertible function have more than one x-intercept? - Answers

https://math.answers.com/algebra/Can_an_invertible_function_have_more_than_one_x-intercept

No. If the function has more than one x-intercept then there are more than one values of x for which y = 0. This means that, for the inverse function, y = 0 should be mapped onto more than one x values. That is, the inverse function would be many-to-one. But a function cannot be many-to-one. So the "inverse" is not a function. And tat means the original function is not invertible.



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https://math.answers.com/algebra/Can_an_invertible_function_have_more_than_one_x-intercept

Can an invertible function have more than one x-intercept? - Answers

No. If the function has more than one x-intercept then there are more than one values of x for which y = 0. This means that, for the inverse function, y = 0 should be mapped onto more than one x values. That is, the inverse function would be many-to-one. But a function cannot be many-to-one. So the "inverse" is not a function. And tat means the original function is not invertible.

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      No. If the function has more than one x-intercept then there are more than one values of x for which y = 0. This means that, for the inverse function, y = 0 should be mapped onto more than one x values. That is, the inverse function would be many-to-one. But a function cannot be many-to-one. So the "inverse" is not a function. And tat means the original function is not invertible.

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