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https://math.answers.com/algebra/Do_inverse_function_of_modulus_exist

Do inverse function of modulus exist? - Answers

No. The modulus function maps two values (except 0) from the domain (-x, and x) to one value (+x) in the range or codomain. This means that for the inverse mapping each value in the new domain (the original codomain) is associated with two values in the new codomain (original domain). A function cannot map one value to more than one.



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Do inverse function of modulus exist? - Answers

https://math.answers.com/algebra/Do_inverse_function_of_modulus_exist

No. The modulus function maps two values (except 0) from the domain (-x, and x) to one value (+x) in the range or codomain. This means that for the inverse mapping each value in the new domain (the original codomain) is associated with two values in the new codomain (original domain). A function cannot map one value to more than one.



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https://math.answers.com/algebra/Do_inverse_function_of_modulus_exist

Do inverse function of modulus exist? - Answers

No. The modulus function maps two values (except 0) from the domain (-x, and x) to one value (+x) in the range or codomain. This means that for the inverse mapping each value in the new domain (the original codomain) is associated with two values in the new codomain (original domain). A function cannot map one value to more than one.

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      No. The modulus function maps two values (except 0) from the domain (-x, and x) to one value (+x) in the range or codomain. This means that for the inverse mapping each value in the new domain (the original codomain) is associated with two values in the new codomain (original domain). A function cannot map one value to more than one.

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